My daughter attends high school and as part of the program racism is discussed, more specifically the teacher explains and defines institutional racism, interpersonal racism and internalized racism.
All of the definitions and examples provided by the teacher have a heavy anti-white slant to it.
However what especially struck me as wrong was the definition of interpersonal racism, which according to the teacher is
what white people do to people of color up close
I think this is wrong and I brought up the concern with the teacher explaining that I don't think this to be limited to whites, only.
As explanation I get from the teacher:
As I described previously, I am using the most up-to-date definitions, research, and applications of racism. Power is most clearly seen in the institutions and structures in the United States, which then influence our own individual beliefs and prejudices. Interpersonal racism is influenced by internalized racism, which is a product of institutional and ideological racism.
There are absolutely instances where those with the non-dominant identifier act on their own prejudices and discriminate against a person outside of their identifier, however, it not an "ism" unless there is an imbalance of power.
Ibram X. Kendi is one of the leading scholars in this field and I cede any further inquiries towards his scholarship.
I don't think this is correct as I don't think interpersonal racism is limited to white. I would appreciate if anybody could explain to me with convincing arguments whether I'm right or wrong. Am I wrong? and interpersonal racism is in fact a result of institutional racism and therefore interpersonal racism can only be perpetrated by whites? Or am I right and interpersonal racism is not tied to any specific race? How can I support my inner feeling with good arguments?
Thank you for any help or advice.